[UPDATED] CompTIA CV0-003 Certification Exam Questions
Quickly and Easily Pass CompTIA Exam with CV0-003 real Dumps
CompTIA CV0-003 exam is a highly respected certification in the IT industry. It is recognized by many organizations and employers as a valid measure of an individual's cloud computing knowledge and skills. CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam certification is also a prerequisite for many advanced cloud computing certifications, including the CompTIA Cloud+ Advanced certification. Candidates who pass CV0-003 exam will be well-positioned for a successful career in cloud computing and will have many opportunities for career growth and advancement.
NEW QUESTION # 213
A cloud administrator has deployed a website and needs to improve the site security to meet requirements. The website architecture is designed to have a DBaaS in the back end and autoscaling instances in the front end using a load balancer to distribute the request. Which of the following will the cloud administrator most likely use?
- A. An API gateway
- B. A WAF
- C. An IPS/IDS
- D. A reverse proxy
Answer: B
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a security solution that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the Internet. A WAF can help improve the site security by blocking malicious requests, preventing SQL injection attacks, mitigating cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, and enforcing security policies. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a device in front of the load balancer. A WAF is more suitable than an API gateway, an IPS/IDS, or a reverse proxy for the website architecture described in the question. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 9, Objective 9.1: Given a scenario, apply security controls and techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 214
After accidentally uploading a password for an IAM user in plain text, which of the following should a cloud administrator do FIRST? (Choose two.)
- A. Remove the published plain-text password
- B. Delete the affected IAM user
- C. Identify the resources that are accessible to the affected IAM user
- D. Notify users that a data breach has occurred
- E. Change the affected IAM user's password
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Removing the published plain-text password and changing the affected IAM user's password are the first actions that a cloud administrator should take after accidentally uploading a password for an IAM user in plain text, as they can prevent or limit any unauthorized or malicious access to the cloud resources or services using the compromised password. Removing the published plain-text password can ensure that the password is not exposed or available to anyone who may access or view the uploaded file. Changing the affected IAM user's password can ensure that the password is updated and secured using encryption or hashing techniques.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7
NEW QUESTION # 215
A system administrator found that a user repeatedly violates acceptable use policies by consuming more disk space than the user is authorized to consume. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to enforce the acceptable use policy?
- A. Reservations
- B. LUN masking
- C. Resource pools
- D. Quotas
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 216
All of a company's servers are currently hosted in one cloud MSP. The company created a new cloud environment with a different MSP. A cloud engineer is now tasked with preparing for server migrations and establishing connectivity between clouds. Which of the following should the engineer perform FIRST?
- A. Peer all the networks from each cloud environment.
- B. Migrate the servers.
- C. Create a VPN tunnel.
- D. Configure network access control lists.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 217
A cloud administrator used a deployment script to recreate a number of servers hosted in a public-cloud provider_ However, after the script completes, the administrator receives the following error when attempting to connect to one of the servers Via SSH from the administrators workstation: CHANGED. Which of the following IS the MOST likely cause of the issue?
- A. The administrator has not copied the public key to the server.
- B. The DNS records need to be updated
- C. The cloud provider assigned a new IP address to the server.
- D. The fingerprint on the server's RSA key is different
Answer: D
Explanation:
This error indicates that the SSH client has detected a change in the server's RSA key, which is used to authenticate the server and establish a secure connection. The SSH client stores the fingerprints of the servers it has previously connected to in a file called known_hosts, which is usually located in the ~/.ssh directory. When the SSH client tries to connect to a server, it compares the fingerprint of the server's RSA key with the one stored in the known_hosts file. If they match, the connection proceeds. If they do not match, the SSH client warns the user of a possible man-in-the-middle attack or a host key change, and aborts the connection.
The most likely cause of this error is that the deployment script has recreated the server with a new RSA key, which does not match the one stored in the known_hosts file. This can happen when a server is reinstalled, cloned, or migrated. To resolve this error, the administrator needs to remove or update the old fingerprint from the known_hosts file, and accept the new fingerprint when connecting to the server again. Alternatively, the administrator can use a tool or service that can synchronize or manage the RSA keys across multiple servers, such as AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) 1, Azure Key Vault 2, or HashiCorp Vault 3.
NEW QUESTION # 218
Which of the following is the MOST secure way to mutually authenticate an external server to an internal server for a data exchange?
- A. Tickets
- B. Certificates
- C. IPSec
- D. VPN
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 219
Lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure.
Which of the following network changes would MOST effectively prevent lateral movement in the future?
- A. Implement microsegmentation on the network
- B. Segment the physical network using a VLAN
- C. Implement 802.1X in the network infrastructure
- D. Implement DNSSEC in all DNS servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Microsegmentation is a type of network security technique that divides a network into smaller logical segments or zones based on workload or application characteristics and applies granular policies and rules to control and isolate traffic within each segment or zone. Implementing microsegmentation on the network can help prevent lateral movement in the future after lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure, as it can limit the exposure and spread of malware by restricting access and communication between different segments or zones based on predefined criteria such as identity, role, or behavior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7
NEW QUESTION # 220
A company is considering consolidating a number of physical machines into a virtual infrastructure that will be located at its main office. The company has the following requirements:
High-performance VMs
More secure
Has system independence
Which of the following is the BEST platform for the company to use?
- A. Type 1 hypervisor
- B. Remote dedicated hosting
- C. Software application virtualization
- D. Type 2 hypervisor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A type 1 hypervisor is what would best meet the requirements of high-performance VMs (Virtual Machines), more secure, and has system independence for a company that wants to move its environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in. A hypervisor is a software or hardware that allows multiple VMs to run on a single physical host or server. A hypervisor can be classified into two types:
Type 1 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs directly on the hardware or bare metal of the host or server, without any underlying OS (Operating System). A type 1 hypervisor can provide benefits such as:
High-performance: A type 1 hypervisor can provide high-performance by eliminating any overhead or interference from an OS, and allowing direct access and control of the hardware resources by the VMs.
More secure: A type 1 hypervisor can provide more security by reducing the attack surface or exposure of the host or server, and isolating and protecting the VMs from each other and from the hardware.
System independence: A type 1 hypervisor can provide system independence by allowing different types of OSs to run on the VMs, regardless of the hardware or vendor of the host or server.
Type 2 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs on top of an OS of the host or server, as a software application or program. A type 2 hypervisor can provide benefits such as:
Ease of installation and use: A type 2 hypervisor can be easily installed and used as a software application or program on an existing OS, without requiring any changes or modifications to the hardware or configuration of the host or server.
Compatibility and portability: A type 2 hypervisor can be compatible and portable with different types of hardware or devices that support the OS of the host or server, such as laptops, desktops, smartphones, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 221
An engineer is responsible for configuring a new firewall solution that will be deployed in a new public cloud environment. All traffic must pass through the firewall. The SLA for the firewall is 99.999%. Which of the following should be deployed?
- A. A web application firewall
- B. Firewalls in a blue-green configuration
- C. Two firewalls in a HA configuration
- D. Two load balancers behind a single firewall
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 222
A cloud administrator is supporting an application that has several reliability issues. The administrator needs visibility into the performance characteristics of the application. Which of the following will MOST likely be used in a reporting dashboard?
- A. Detail log data from syslog files of the application
- B. Results from the last performance and workload testing
- C. Metrics and time-series data measuring key performance indicators
- D. Data from files containing error messages from the application
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Metrics and time-series data measuring key performance indicators.
Metrics and time-series data are numerical values that represent the state and behavior of a system over time.
They can measure key performance indicators (KPIs) such as availability, latency, throughput, error rate, and resource utilization. Metrics and time-series data can help a cloud administrator to monitor, analyze, and troubleshoot the performance characteristics of an application .
Metrics and time-series data are most likely to be used in a reporting dashboard, because they can provide a clear and concise overview of the application's performance. A reporting dashboard is a graphical user interface that displays the most important information about a system or a process in a single view. A reporting dashboard can help a cloud administrator to:
Visualize the trends and patterns of the metrics and time-series data using charts, graphs, tables, or gauges .
Compare the actual performance of the application with the expected or desired performance based on the defined service level objectives (SLOs) or service level agreements (SLAs) .
Identify and diagnose any performance issues or anomalies that may affect the reliability of the application .
Communicate and report the performance status and results to the stakeholders or customers.
The other options are not as likely to be used in a reporting dashboard, because they are either too detailed, too outdated, or too irrelevant for measuring the performance characteristics of the application. For example:
Data from files containing error messages from the application (A) may help to identify and debug some specific errors or exceptions that occur in the application. However, they are not sufficient to measure the overall performance or reliability of the application. They are also too verbose and unstructured to be displayed in a reporting dashboard.
Results from the last performance and workload testing (B) may help to evaluate and optimize the performance of the application under different scenarios and conditions. However, they are not representative of the current or real-time performance of the application in production. They are also too static and outdated to be displayed in a reporting dashboard.
Detail log data from syslog files of the application may help to record and track the events and activities that happen in the application. However, they are not designed to measure the key performance indicators or metrics of the application. They are also too complex and voluminous to be displayed in a reporting dashboard.
NEW QUESTION # 223
A systems administrator is configuring RAID for a new server. This server will host files for users and replicate to an identical server. While redundancy is necessary, the most important need is to maximize storage.
Which of the following RAID types should the administrator choose?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION # 224
Which of the following authentication types is being required when a user must swipe a key card and then enter a password before being allowed access to the server room?
- A. Multi-factor authentication
- B. Biometric authentication
- C. Single sign-on
- D. Single-factor authentication
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 225
A development team recently completed testing changes to a company's web-based CMS in the sandbox environment. The cloud administrator deployed these CMS application changes to the staging environment as part of the next phase in the release life cycle. The deployment was successful, but after deploying the CMS application, the web page displays an error message stating the application is unavailable. After reviewing the application logs, the administrator sees an error message that the CMS is unable to connect to the database. Which of the following is the BEST action for the cloud administrator to perform to resolve the issue?
- A. Modify the ACL to allow the staging environment to access the database in the sandbox environment.
- B. Modify the CMS application deployment to use the previous version and redeploy the application.
- C. Modify the configuration settings of the CMS application to connect to the database in the current environment.
- D. Modify the deployment script to delete and recreate the database whenever the CMS application is deployed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modifying the configuration settings of the CMS (Content Management System) application to connect to the database in the current environment is what the cloud administrator should do to resolve the issue of web page displaying an error message stating the application is unavailable after deploying CMS application changes to the staging environment. A CMS is a software or platform that allows users to create, manage, and publish web content. A CMS may use a database to store and retrieve web content and information. A staging environment is a testing or pre-production environment that simulates the production environment and allows users to verify and validate changes or updates before deploying them to production. Modifying the configuration settings of the CMS application can help to resolve the issue by ensuring that the CMS application can access and communicate with the database in the current environment, rather than using the previous or default settings that may point to a different or non-existent database.
NEW QUESTION # 226
A company would like to migrate its current on-premises workloads to the public cloud. The current platform requires at least 80 instances running at all times to work properly. The company wants the workload to be highly available, even if the cloud provider loses one region due to a catastrophe, and the costs to be kept to a minimum. Which of the following strategies should the company implement?
- A. Create /26 subnets in two regions and run 40 instances on each one.
- B. Create /25 subnets in two regions and run 80 instances on each one.
- C. Create /26 subnets in three regions and run 80 instances on each one.
- D. Create /26 subnets in three regions and run 40 instances on each one.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best strategy to migrate the current on-premises workloads to the public cloud for the company that requires at least 80 instances running at all times and wants the workload to be highly available and cost- effective is to create /26 subnets in two regions and run 40 instances on each one. A /26 subnet can accommodate up to 62 hosts, which is enough for 40 instances. By creating subnets in two regions, the company can achieve high availability and redundancy in case one region fails due to a catastrophe. By running 40 instances on each subnet, the company can meet the minimum requirement of 80 instances and also save on costs by avoiding overprovisioning or underutilization of resources. Reference: What is VPN?
How It Works, Types of VPN - Kaspersky
NEW QUESTION # 227
An OS administrator is reporting slow storage throughput on a few VMs in a private IaaS cloud. Performance graphs on the host show no increase in CPU or memory. However, performance graphs on the storage show a decrease of throughput in both IOPS and MBps but not much increase in latency. There is no increase in workload, and latency is stable on the NFS storage arrays that are used by those VMs.
Which of the following should be verified NEXT?
- A. Application
- B. SAN
- C. VM GPU settings
- D. Network
Answer: D
Explanation:
The network is the set of devices, connections, protocols, and configurations that enable communication and data transfer between different systems and applications. The network can affect the performance of storage throughput by influencing factors such as bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss, and congestion. Poor network performance can result in low storage throughput in both IOPS and MBps, as it can limit the amount and speed of data that can be sent or received by the storage devices. Verifying the network should be the next step for troubleshooting the issue of slow storage throughput on a few VMs in a private IaaS cloud, as it can help identify and resolve any network-related problems that may be causing the issue. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 17, section 3.4
NEW QUESTION # 228
A systems administrator is using VMs to deploy a new solution that contains a number of application VMs.
Which of the following would provide high availability to the application environment in case of hypervisor failure?
- A. Anti-affinity rules
- B. Cold migration
- C. Live migration
- D. Affinity rules
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 229
Which of the following is a benefit of having a virtual versus physical server environment?
- A. Redundancy
- B. Data scraping
- C. IPSec tunnel
- D. Improved security
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 230
A company is currently running a website on site. However, because of a business requirement to reduce current RTO from 12 hours to one hour, and the RPO from one day to eight hours, the company is considering operating in a hybrid environment. The website uses mostly static files and a small relational database. Which of the following should the cloud architect implement to achieve the objective at the LOWEST cost possible?
- A. Implement a website replica in the cloud with auto-scaling using the smallest possible footprint.
Use DNS to shift the load from on premises to the cloud. - B. Implement a CDN that caches all requests with a higher TTL and deploy the laaS instances manually in case of disaster.
Upload the backup on demand to the cloud to restore on the new instances. - C. Implement a load-balanced environment in the cloud that is equivalent to the current on-premises setup and use DNS to shift the load from on premises to cloud.
- D. Implement backups to cloud storage and infrastructure as code to provision the environment automatically when the on-premises site is down. Restore the data from the backups.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 231
A systems administrator is trying to reduce storage consumption. Which of the following file types would benefit the MOST from compression?
- A. System files
- B. Mail database
- C. User backups
- D. Relational database
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
User backups are the file type that would benefit the most from compression to reduce storage consumption.
Compression is a process of reducing the size of data by removing redundant or unnecessary information or using algorithms to encode data more efficiently. Compression can save storage space and bandwidth, but it may also affect the quality or performance of data depending on the compression method and ratio. User backups are typically large files that contain various types of data, such as documents, images, videos, etc., that can be compressed without significant loss of quality or functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 232
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